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Chickenpox (varicella) is a viral infection that causes an itchy rash with small, fluid-filled blisters. Chickenpox is highly contagious to people who haven't had the disease or been vaccinated against it. Before routine chickenpox vaccination, virtually all people had been infected by the time they reached adulthood, sometimes with serious complications. Today, the number of cases and hospitalizations is down dramatically. For most people, chickenpox is a mild disease. Still, it's better to get vaccinated. The chickenpox vaccine is a safe, effective way to prevent chickenpox and its possible complications.
Homan’s sign test also called dorsiflexon sign test is a physical examination procedure that is used to test for Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT). A positive Homan’s sign in the presence of other clinical signs may be a quick indicator of DVT. Clinical evaluation alone cannot be relied on for patient management, but when carefully performed, it remains useful in determining the need for additional testing (like D-dimer test, ultrasonography, multidetector helical computed axial tomography (CT), and pulmonary angiography) [1][2].
Preeclampsia is a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys. Preeclampsia usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy in a woman whose blood pressure had been normal. Even a slight rise in blood pressure may be a sign of preeclampsia. Left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious — even fatal — complications for both you and your baby. If you have preeclampsia, the only cure is delivery of your baby. If you're diagnosed with preeclampsia too early in your pregnancy to deliver your baby, you and your doctor face a challenging task. Your baby needs more time to mature, but you need to avoid putting yourself or your baby at risk of serious complications.
The video is a clip from ABC 7 News, KGO-TV. The video details the new FDA approved device Insight eNO system which uses exhaled nitric oxide for effective asthma management, in both adults and children.
Insight eNO has revolutionized asthma treatment. Apieron’s asthma products help in managing asthma for patients suffering from acute asthma attacks by detecting exhaled nitric oxide (eNO) present in the human breath.
Scar revision includes techniques that improve the appearance of an unsightly scar, regardless of its size, type or age. This is typically not covered by insurance carriers and is treated as a cosmetic procedure. Though scars can never be completely removed, the appearance of scarring can be greatly diminished. Who Should Get Scar Revision? The best candidates for scar revision are in good health and have realistic expectations. Scar revision may be used to treat: Hyperpigmented scars Large or plainly visible scars Keloid scarring Raised scars Deep depression scars After scar revision, the appearance of your scar should be greatly reduced. Scar revision can improve the size, shape and color of your scar. Multiple procedures may be needed to achieve optimal results. There are several different techniques that can be used during your scar revision. During a consultation, we can discuss the best techniques and determine if you are a suitable candidate. What to Expect During Your Scar Revision Your scar revision may involve one or more of the following techniques: Topical treatments (gels, creams, external compression) can treat mild scarring or changes in pigmentation. Injectable treatments like dermal fillers are best for filling in scar depressions. These treatment options can provide long-lasting improvements, however, they are not always permanent. Surface treatments like chemical peels, dermabrasion, laser therapy and skin bleaching can improve skin tone and texture. More than one treatment may be needed to achieve optimal results. Surgical scar revision is only used in more severe cases. Reconstructive techniques like Z-plasty, tissue expansion, or skin grafting replace a prominent scar with a less noticeable scar. After Your Surgery Scar revision recovery varies depending on the procedure you have elected. Topical and injectable treatments rarely require downtime. Surface treatments and surgical removal can require several days of recovery. You may experience some temporary bruising, swelling, or discomfort. Over-the-counter or prescription medication can be used to manage pain. Topical and injectable treatments are likely to require sustained application to maintain results. The final results of surface treatments and surgical removal may not be visible for several weeks to months. It is important to protect the treatment area from direct sun exposure for several weeks. Additional details about your specific recovery will be discussed during your consultation.
The surgeon may use treatment options such as thoracoscopy, electrocautery, laser treatment, resection of blebs or pleura, or open thoracotomy. Other surgical indications are as follows: Persistent air leak for longer than 7 days. Recurrent, ipsilateral pneumothorax.
The vulvar vaginal diseases service sees referrals to help women with short--and long--term problems of the outer genital area (vulva), vagina and pelvic floor muscles including: Vulvar vaginal burning, itching, irritation and pain Vulvar Vestibulitis Pain with intercourse Discharge Yeast infections Bacterial vaginosis Pelvic floor muscle dysfunction A patient must be referred by her local health care provider. Services include: Skin care education Examinations-Your healthcare provider will examine you and talk with you about recommendations for treatment and/or management of your symptoms. Some vulvar diseases require a biopsy to diagnose the condition. Referrals-Your healthcare team may refer you to other specialists, including physical therapists or health psychologists. Separate insurance authorization is necessary for these services. The clinic staff provides general education and support to help women cope with these very personal health problems. Following a clinic visit, a letter is promptly sent to your local health care provider. The letter provides the results of your exam and the plan of care.
it's a 8 years old boy with previous medical history of Sickle cell disease presented with gall stone and repeat abdominal pain. A laparoscopic cholecystectomy is performed. The cystic duct is controlled with 2 stiches of absorbable suture. The cystic artery is simply cauterized with the hook cauter...y. the specimen is removed through the umbilical port using an 10mm endobag.
This video shows Prof Dan Reinstein, MD MA(Cantab) FRCSC DABO FRCOphth FEBO performing a ReLEx SMILE keyhole LASIK procedure using the latest surgical instrument that he helped to develop (Malosa MMSU1297 - Reinstein Lenticule Separator: http://www.malosa.com/en/reinstein-le...). This instrument enables the procedure to be performed with one instrument, through one 2mm incision, using only one sweep per plane, and taking about 30 seconds to separate and withdraw the lenticule, improving day 1 uncorrected vision over other lenticule extraction techniques that require more corneal manipulation.
Watch as neurosurgeon Dr. Shawn Hervey-Jumper performs awake brain surgery on a 31-year-old woman with a brain tumor at UCSF Health.
Learn more here: https://magazine.ucsf.edu/awak....e-brain-cancer-surge
The patient has spasticity in the lower extremities greater than the upper extremities. The hips and knees are flexed and adducted with the ankles extended and internally rotated. When the patient walks both lower extremities are circumducted and the upper extremities are held in a mid or low guard position. This type of gait is usually seen with bilateral periventricular lesions. The legs are more affected than the arms because the corticospinal tract axons that are going to the legs are closest to the ventricles.
Dr. Ebraheim’s educational animated video describing the anatomy and associated injuries of the knee joint.
Disrupted quadriceps
•Patient is unable to actively extend the knee.
The most common cause of ACL ruptures:
•Traumatic force being applied during twisting motion.
•Side stepping or landing from a jump.
Patient complains of:
•Immediate pain
•Knee giving way
•Swelling
Aspiration of the knee
•If aspiration of the knee joint shows evidence of blood within the joint there is 75-80% chance of ACL and meniscal injury.
Lachamn’s test- ACL knee exam
•Knee is flexed at 30 degrees.
•ACL tear of the knee is identified by pulling on the tibia and examining the frontward motion of the lower leg in comparison to the upper leg.
Radiological exam – ACL
•MRI of the knee joint shows bone lesions or bruising associated with tears of the ACL. Injury is found in the typical location; middle of the femoral condyle and posterior part of the tibia laterally.
Posterior cruciate ligament tear (PCL)
•Common cause of injury is a bent knee hitting a dashboard in a car accident.
Tibial Sag Test –PCL knee exam
Quadriceps active test-PCL knee exam
•The examiner stabilizes the leg of the patient and then the patient is asked to actively contract the quadriceps muscle.
•The tibia is seen actively reduced from the posterior subluxed position.
Lachman’s test-PCL knee exam
•Knee is bent 20-30 degrees.
•The posterior drawer test is carried out while the patient is in a supine position and the knee is flexed to 90 degrees.
•The amount of translation of the tibia relative to the femur is observed.
The dial test is performed while the patient is in the supine or prone position and both knees are in 90 and 30 degrees of flexion. More than 10 degrees of external rotation indicates significant injury.
Common meniscal tears
Symptoms include
•Knee pain
•Pain with straightening the knee
•Swelling
•Locking
•Weakness